1. During a home visit, the nurse observes a client who is recovering from a left total hip replacement and is walking with a cane. Which observation indicates the client understands how to walk with a cane?
a. He walks alternating the cane in his left hand, moving the cane forward with the unaffected leg.
b. He walks alternating the cane from his right hand to his left in time with his steps.
c. The cane is held in the left hand and is moved forward when he moves his right foot forward.
d. He holds the cane in his right hand and moves it forward when he moves his left foot forward.
2. This is defined as the state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease relating to reproductive health and to its function and processes
a. Health c. reproductive health
b. Maternal health & child health nursing d. procreation
3. Goals of reproductive health include the following except:
a. every pregnancy should be intended
b. every sex act should be free of coercion and infection
c. every birth should be healthy
d. achieved a less than desired family size
4. The center of maternal deaths are mainly due to:
a. woman b. child c. woman & child d. the family
5. The major causes of death in infants & child are:
a. Chicken pox c. diarrhea and respiratory infections
b. Tuberculosis d. congenital heart diseases
6. The supplementation is ideally given to pregnant women from the 5th month of pregnancy up to 2 months post partum
a. Iron b. Penicillin c. Vitamin C d. Aspirin
7. The following are qualified for home deliveries except
a. Full term c. Less than 5 pregnancies
b. History of diabetes and hypertension d. cephalic presentation
8. All but one is qualified for home deliveries:
a. Adequate pelvis c. no history of complications during previous deliveries
b. No previous CS d. preterm pregnancies
9. The nurse is assessing an 18 month old child with iron deficiency anemia to determine whether the child is taking the prescribed iron preparation. Which of the following assessments is the best indicator of adequate dosage and intake of the prescribed iron preparation?
a. Characteristics of stool c. color of oral mucous membranes
b. Height and weight pattern d. age-appropriate vital signs.
10. The nurse is conducting a class aimed at helping persons prevent cancer. Which statement made by a participant indicates to the nurse a need for more instruction?
a. “I will try to eat at least five servings of fruits and vegetables a day”
b. “I won’t smoke in the house anymore”
c. “it is important that I have regular PAP smear”
d. “I will wear sun block when I go to the beach.”
11. After delivery, the nurse should check that the mother have
a. Contracted uterus b. normal VS c. placenta must be expelled D.AOTA
12. It is recommended that infants be exclusively breastfed for the first
a. 2 weeks b. month c. 6 months d. 2 years
13. A surgical procedure which provides permanent contraception for women who chooses to have no more children.
a. Vasectomy b. billings method c. cervical mucus method D. bilateral tubal ligation
14. A family planning method that reduces the risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer among women
a. Condoms b. lactating amenorrhea method c. pills d. tubal ligation
15. A disadvantage of this family planning method is that it may cause allergy for people who are sensitive to latex or lubricants
a. Condoms b. lactating amenorrhea c. pills d. Tubal ligation
16. Which among the family planning methods has the lowest percentage of effectiveness?
a. Vasectomy b. Tubal ligation c. pills d. basal body temperature
17. A pregnant woman who had 4 doses of tetanus is said to be __% protected from tetanus
a. 80 b. 90 c. 99 d. 100
18. A nurse gives a lecture regarding hypertension to a small group. The group understood the teachings if they identify this as a modifiable risk factor for hypertension
a. Race b. family history c. advancing age d. high salt intake
19. A key factor in preventing hypertension is diet. The diet mainly prescribed for hypertensive patients is
a. High salt, low potassium
b. low salt, high fat
c. high fiber, high salt
d. Low fat, low salt
20. Exposure to dyes and solvents and chronic bladder inflammation are risk factors for development of
a. breast cancer b. lung cancer c. bladder cancer d. prostate cancer
21. Risk factors for breast cancer include
a. early menarche, late menopause b. low fat diet c. physical activity
d. no history of breast cancer in the family
22. The primary cause of COPD is
a. obesity b. barrel chest c. drug overdose d. smoking
23. The diagnosis of COPD is confirmed by
a. ECG b. Spinal tap c. spirometer d. creatinine kinase level
24. A mother asks what causes asthma. The nurse should tell the mother that in asthma
a. old age is a main risk factor c. it is transmitted by mosquito bites
b. it can be triggered by gas, smoke and dust mites d. decreased insulin in blood
25. Which of the following is not a warning sign for cancer?
a. change in bowel or bladder habits
b. unexplained anemia
c. obvious change in wart or mole
d. sudden weight loss due to crash dieting.
26. The cheapest and most affordable screening procedure for breast cancer is
a. mammogram b. simple mastectomy c. breast self-examination (BSE) d.biopsy
27. A female client has a history of breast cancer in her family. The nurse should advise her to have a mammogram starting at age
a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45
28. The best time to perform BSE is
a. 1 week before menstrual period b. 1 week after the menstrual period
c. during menstrual period d. once every 2 weeks
29. The primary screening tool for cervical cancer among over the age of 18 is
a. digital rectal exam b. Leopold’s maneuver c. Pap’s smear d. RBC count
30. which of the following laboratory test is used for early detection of prostate cancer?
a. testicular self examination b. PSA determination C. chest x-ray d. sputum cytology
31. This is defined by the WHO as the state of well being where a person can realize his or her own abilities to cope stresses in life and work productively
a. mental disorder b. mental health c. mental vitality d. mental illness
32. Currently the leading cause of end stage renal disease in the Philippines is
a. complications in the kidney due to diabetes
b. complications in the kidney from hypertension
c. chronic glumerulonephritis
d. nephrosis
33. if the patient is deemed “incompetent” this means that:
a. he/she can’t afford the hospital bill
b. he/she won’t follow medical directions
c. a court proceeding has declared him/her unable to make his/her own decisions
d. as a nurse you have assessed that he/she is not making good choices or decisions.
34. the principles that govern right and proper conduct of a person regarding life, biology and health professions is referred as:
a. morality b. religion c. bioethics d. values
35. the purpose of having a nurse’s code of ethics is:
a. to determine the roles and functions of the health care giver, nurses, clients
b. to help the public understand professional conduct expected of nurses
c. identify nusing action recommend for specific health care situations
d. delineate the scope and areas of nursing
36. the most important nursing responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care is to:
a. be accountable for each actions
b. not take sides, always remain neutral and fair
c. assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team
d. act only when advised that the action is ethically sound
37. you inform the patient about his rights which includes the following, except
a. right to expect that the records about his care will be treated as confidential
b. right to obtain information about another patient.
c. right to consent to or decline to participate in research studies or experiments.
d. right to expect reasonable continuity of care
38. an example of management function of a nurse is:
a. directing and evaluating the staff nurses
b. performing nursing procedures for the clients
c. teaching patient do breathing and coughing exercises
d. preparing for a surprise party of a client
39. when the head nurse in your ward plots and approves your work schedules and direct your work, she is demonstrating
a. delegation b. authority c. accountability d. responsibility
40. the following tasks can be safely delegated by a nurse to a non-nurse health worker except:
a. irrigation of Nasogastric tube c. change IV infusion
b. take VS d. transfer a client from bed to chair
41. you made a mistake in giving the medicine to the wrong client. You notify the client’s doctor and write an incidental report. You are demonstrating:
a. authority b. accountability c. autocracy d. responsibility
42. which of this clients has a problem with the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?
a. diarrhea c. fracture on the femur
b. brain tumor d. anemia
43. lab exam shows reduced oxygen level on the blood, this condition is called:
a. hypoxia c. cyanosis
b. anemia d. hypoxemia
44. the client is having breathing difficulties when lying on his back and must sit upright in bed to breathe effectively and comfortably. The nurse documents this situation as:
a. orthopnea c. apnea
b. tachypnea d. dyspnea
45. the priority action on patients from a vehicular accident is to
a. assess the extent of injuries incurred by the victim
b. assist the police investigation
c. report the incident to the nearest police station
d. assess damage to property
46. priority attention must be given to which of these clients?
a. john with chest injury, pale and has difficulty in breathing
b. mike who has a lacerations on the arms with mild bleeding
c. gil with severe anxiety due to trauma on a accident
d. cha with swelling ankle with some abrasions
47. you are attending a certification program on CPR offered and required by the hospital employing you. This is called
a. professional course towards credits c. inservice education
b. continuing education d. advance training
48. when taking the BP of a client who recently smoke or drinks coffee , how long should the nurse wait before taking the BP for accuracy?
a. 1 hour b. 30 min c. 15 min d. 5 min
49. cancer cure is dependent on
a. proficiency in doing BSE c. watching out for warning signs of cancer
b. early detection and prompt treatment d. use of alternative means of treatment
50. when taking the BP, reading the cuff should be
a. deflate fully then immediately start second reading for same client
b. deflate quickly after inflating up to 180 mmHg
c. inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic BP based on the palpitation of radial or bronchial artery.
d. large enough to wrap around upper arm of the adult client 1cm above the brachial artery.
51. Lifestyle related diseases in general shares areas common risk factors. These are the following except.
a. genetics b. nutrition c. physical activity d. smoking
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