All About Nursing

Practice Test on Community Health Nursing

2008-11-10T16:11:00.000-08:00

1. During a home visit, the nurse observes a client who is recovering from a left total hip replacement and is walking with a cane. Which observation indicates the client understands how to walk with a cane?
a. He walks alternating the cane in his left hand, moving the cane forward with the unaffected leg.
b. He walks alternating the cane from his right hand to his left in time with his steps.
c. The cane is held in the left hand and is moved forward when he moves his right foot forward.
d. He holds the cane in his right hand and moves it forward when he moves his left foot forward.
2. This is defined as the state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease relating to reproductive health and to its function and processes
a. Health c. reproductive health
b. Maternal health & child health nursing d. procreation
3. Goals of reproductive health include the following except:
a. every pregnancy should be intended
b. every sex act should be free of coercion and infection
c. every birth should be healthy
d. achieved a less than desired family size
4. The center of maternal deaths are mainly due to:
a. woman b. child c. woman & child d. the family
5. The major causes of death in infants & child are:
a. Chicken pox c. diarrhea and respiratory infections
b. Tuberculosis d. congenital heart diseases
6. The supplementation is ideally given to pregnant women from the 5th month of pregnancy up to 2 months post partum
a. Iron b. Penicillin c. Vitamin C d. Aspirin
7. The following are qualified for home deliveries except
a. Full term c. Less than 5 pregnancies
b. History of diabetes and hypertension d. cephalic presentation
8. All but one is qualified for home deliveries:
a. Adequate pelvis c. no history of complications during previous deliveries
b. No previous CS d. preterm pregnancies
9. The nurse is assessing an 18 month old child with iron deficiency anemia to determine whether the child is taking the prescribed iron preparation. Which of the following assessments is the best indicator of adequate dosage and intake of the prescribed iron preparation?
a. Characteristics of stool c. color of oral mucous membranes
b. Height and weight pattern d. age-appropriate vital signs.
10. The nurse is conducting a class aimed at helping persons prevent cancer. Which statement made by a participant indicates to the nurse a need for more instruction?
a. “I will try to eat at least five servings of fruits and vegetables a day”
b. “I won’t smoke in the house anymore”
c. “it is important that I have regular PAP smear”
d. “I will wear sun block when I go to the beach.”
11. After delivery, the nurse should check that the mother have
a. Contracted uterus b. normal VS c. placenta must be expelled D.AOTA
12. It is recommended that infants be exclusively breastfed for the first
a. 2 weeks b. month c. 6 months d. 2 years
13. A surgical procedure which provides permanent contraception for women who chooses to have no more children.
a. Vasectomy b. billings method c. cervical mucus method D. bilateral tubal ligation
14. A family planning method that reduces the risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer among women
a. Condoms b. lactating amenorrhea method c. pills d. tubal ligation
15. A disadvantage of this family planning method is that it may cause allergy for people who are sensitive to latex or lubricants
a. Condoms b. lactating amenorrhea c. pills d. Tubal ligation
16. Which among the family planning methods has the lowest percentage of effectiveness?
a. Vasectomy b. Tubal ligation c. pills d. basal body temperature
17. A pregnant woman who had 4 doses of tetanus is said to be __% protected from tetanus
a. 80 b. 90 c. 99 d. 100
18. A nurse gives a lecture regarding hypertension to a small group. The group understood the teachings if they identify this as a modifiable risk factor for hypertension
a. Race b. family history c. advancing age d. high salt intake
19. A key factor in preventing hypertension is diet. The diet mainly prescribed for hypertensive patients is
a. High salt, low potassium
b. low salt, high fat
c. high fiber, high salt
d. Low fat, low salt
20. Exposure to dyes and solvents and chronic bladder inflammation are risk factors for development of
a. breast cancer b. lung cancer c. bladder cancer d. prostate cancer
21. Risk factors for breast cancer include
a. early menarche, late menopause b. low fat diet c. physical activity
d. no history of breast cancer in the family
22. The primary cause of COPD is
a. obesity b. barrel chest c. drug overdose d. smoking
23. The diagnosis of COPD is confirmed by
a. ECG b. Spinal tap c. spirometer d. creatinine kinase level
24. A mother asks what causes asthma. The nurse should tell the mother that in asthma
a. old age is a main risk factor c. it is transmitted by mosquito bites
b. it can be triggered by gas, smoke and dust mites d. decreased insulin in blood
25. Which of the following is not a warning sign for cancer?
a. change in bowel or bladder habits
b. unexplained anemia
c. obvious change in wart or mole
d. sudden weight loss due to crash dieting.
26. The cheapest and most affordable screening procedure for breast cancer is
a. mammogram b. simple mastectomy c. breast self-examination (BSE) d.biopsy
27. A female client has a history of breast cancer in her family. The nurse should advise her to have a mammogram starting at age
a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45
28. The best time to perform BSE is
a. 1 week before menstrual period b. 1 week after the menstrual period
c. during menstrual period d. once every 2 weeks
29. The primary screening tool for cervical cancer among over the age of 18 is
a. digital rectal exam b. Leopold’s maneuver c. Pap’s smear d. RBC count
30. which of the following laboratory test is used for early detection of prostate cancer?
a. testicular self examination b. PSA determination C. chest x-ray d. sputum cytology
31. This is defined by the WHO as the state of well being where a person can realize his or her own abilities to cope stresses in life and work productively
a. mental disorder b. mental health c. mental vitality d. mental illness
32. Currently the leading cause of end stage renal disease in the Philippines is
a. complications in the kidney due to diabetes
b. complications in the kidney from hypertension
c. chronic glumerulonephritis
d. nephrosis
33. if the patient is deemed “incompetent” this means that:
a. he/she can’t afford the hospital bill
b. he/she won’t follow medical directions
c. a court proceeding has declared him/her unable to make his/her own decisions
d. as a nurse you have assessed that he/she is not making good choices or decisions.
34. the principles that govern right and proper conduct of a person regarding life, biology and health professions is referred as:
a. morality b. religion c. bioethics d. values
35. the purpose of having a nurse’s code of ethics is:
a. to determine the roles and functions of the health care giver, nurses, clients
b. to help the public understand professional conduct expected of nurses
c. identify nusing action recommend for specific health care situations
d. delineate the scope and areas of nursing
36. the most important nursing responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care is to:
a. be accountable for each actions
b. not take sides, always remain neutral and fair
c. assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team
d. act only when advised that the action is ethically sound
37. you inform the patient about his rights which includes the following, except
a. right to expect that the records about his care will be treated as confidential
b. right to obtain information about another patient.
c. right to consent to or decline to participate in research studies or experiments.
d. right to expect reasonable continuity of care
38. an example of management function of a nurse is:
a. directing and evaluating the staff nurses
b. performing nursing procedures for the clients
c. teaching patient do breathing and coughing exercises
d. preparing for a surprise party of a client
39. when the head nurse in your ward plots and approves your work schedules and direct your work, she is demonstrating
a. delegation b. authority c. accountability d. responsibility
40. the following tasks can be safely delegated by a nurse to a non-nurse health worker except:
a. irrigation of Nasogastric tube c. change IV infusion
b. take VS d. transfer a client from bed to chair
41. you made a mistake in giving the medicine to the wrong client. You notify the client’s doctor and write an incidental report. You are demonstrating:
a. authority b. accountability c. autocracy d. responsibility
42. which of this clients has a problem with the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?
a. diarrhea c. fracture on the femur
b. brain tumor d. anemia
43. lab exam shows reduced oxygen level on the blood, this condition is called:
a. hypoxia c. cyanosis
b. anemia d. hypoxemia
44. the client is having breathing difficulties when lying on his back and must sit upright in bed to breathe effectively and comfortably. The nurse documents this situation as:
a. orthopnea c. apnea
b. tachypnea d. dyspnea
45. the priority action on patients from a vehicular accident is to
a. assess the extent of injuries incurred by the victim
b. assist the police investigation
c. report the incident to the nearest police station
d. assess damage to property
46. priority attention must be given to which of these clients?
a. john with chest injury, pale and has difficulty in breathing
b. mike who has a lacerations on the arms with mild bleeding
c. gil with severe anxiety due to trauma on a accident
d. cha with swelling ankle with some abrasions
47. you are attending a certification program on CPR offered and required by the hospital employing you. This is called
a. professional course towards credits c. inservice education
b. continuing education d. advance training
48. when taking the BP of a client who recently smoke or drinks coffee , how long should the nurse wait before taking the BP for accuracy?
a. 1 hour b. 30 min c. 15 min d. 5 min
49. cancer cure is dependent on
a. proficiency in doing BSE c. watching out for warning signs of cancer
b. early detection and prompt treatment d. use of alternative means of treatment
50. when taking the BP, reading the cuff should be
a. deflate fully then immediately start second reading for same client
b. deflate quickly after inflating up to 180 mmHg
c. inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic BP based on the palpitation of radial or bronchial artery.
d. large enough to wrap around upper arm of the adult client 1cm above the brachial artery.
51. Lifestyle related diseases in general shares areas common risk factors. These are the following except.
a. genetics b. nutrition c. physical activity d. smoking

NURSING HEALTH HISTORY

2008-02-27T23:50:00.000-08:00

 NURSING HEALTH HISTORY

Purpose
• To elicit information about all variables that may affect the client’s health status
• To obtain data that help the nurse understand and appreciate the client’s life experiences
• To initiate a non-judgmental, trusting interpersonal relationship with the client

 BIOGRAOHIC DATA
• Name
• Address
• Age
• Sex
• Race
• Marital status
• Occupation
• Religion
• Health care financing
• User source of medicare

 CHIEF COMPLAINT
• Reason for visit
• “What is troubling you?”
• Recorded in client’s words

 HISTORY OF PRESENT ILLNESS
• Usual health status
• Chronologic story
• Relevant family history
• Disability assessment

 PAST HISTORY
• Childhood illnesses
• Childhood immunizations
• Allergies
• Accident and injuries
• Hospitalization
• Medications

 FAMILY Hx OF ILLNESS
• Ages of siblings, parents, etc.
• Current state of health
• If deceased, cause of death

 REVIEW OF SYSTEMS
• Subjective data
• Checklist

 LIFE-STYLE
• Personal habits
• Diet
• Sleep/rest patterns
• Activities of daily living
• Instrumental activities of daily living
• Recreation/hobbies

 SOCIAL DATA
• Family relationships/friendships
• Ethnic affiliations
• Educational history
• Occupational history
• Economic status
• Home and neighborhood conditions

 PSYCHOLOGIC DATA
• Major stressors
• Usual coping pattern
• Communication style
• Self-concept
• Mood

 PATTERN OF HEALTH CARE
• Note all health care resources

 ABBREVIATIONS

Page 343 and 795 Fundamentals of Nursing – Kozier 7th Edition

Chapter 16 ASSESSING
Page 256 Fundamentals of Nursing – Kozier 7th Edition

 Nursing Process
- Is a systematic, rational method of planning and providing individualized nursing care for individuals, families, groups and communities.
- Originated by Hall(1995), Johnson(1959), Orlando (1961), Wiedenbach (1963)

 Phases of Nursing Process

 Assessing
- Collecting, organizing, validating and documenting client data – client’s personal perceptions
- Involves active participation by the client and nurse in obtaining subjective and objective data about the client’s health status
Subjective data, symptoms, covert data – client’s personal perception
Objective data – detectable by an observer
- Sources of data: primary and secondary
Primary – client
Secondary – family members or other support persons, client records (medical and laboratory), health care professionals, literature
- Data collection methods
Observing
Interviewing
Directive interview – structured
Nondirective interview – rapport building interview
o Types of Interview Questions
- Open-ended questions, neutral question
- Closed questions, leading questions
Examining
 Diagnosing
- analyzing and synthesizing data
 Planning
- determining how to prevent, reduce or resolve the identified client problems; how to support client strengths, and how to implement nursing interventions in an organized, individualized and goal directed manner
 Implementing
- carrying out the planned interventions
 Evaluating
- measuring the degree to which goals/outcomes have been achieved and identifying factors that positively or negatively influence goal achievement

 Characteristics of Nursing Process
- Cyclic, dynamic
- Client Centered
- Interpersonal and collaborative
- Universally applicable
- Focus on problem solving and decision making

Leopold's Maneuvers

2008-02-27T23:43:00.000-08:00

Leopold's maneuvers

In obstetrics, Leopold's Maneuvers are a common and systematic way to determine the position of a fetus inside the woman's uterus.

Overview and rationale

The maneuvers consist of four distinct actions, each helping to determine the position of the fetus. The maneuvers are important because they help determine the position and presentation of the fetus, which in conjunction with correct assessment of the shape of the maternal pelvis can indicate whether the delivery is going to be complicated, or whether a Cesarean section is necessary.

The examiner's skill and practice in performing the maneuvers are the primary factor in whether the fetal lie is correctly ascertained, and so the maneuvers are not truly diagnostic. Actual position can only be determined by ultrasound performed by a competent technician or professional.

Performing the maneuvers

Leopold's Maneuvers are difficult to perform on obese women and women who have hydramnios. The palpation can sometimes be uncomfortable for the woman if care is not taken to ensure she is relaxed and adequately positioned. To aid in this, the health care provider (or other professional) should first ensure that the woman has recently emptied her bladder. If she has not, she may need to have a straight urinary catheter inserted to empty it if she is unable to micturate herself. The woman should lay on her back with her shoulders raised slightly on a pillow and her knees drawn up a little. Her abdomen should be uncovered, and most women appreciate it if the individual performing the maneuver warms their hands prior to palpation.

First maneuver

While facing the woman, palpate the woman's upper abdomen with both hands. A professional can often determine the size, consistency, shape, and mobility of the form that is felt. The fetal head is hard, firm, round, and moves independently of the trunk while the buttocks feels softer, is symmetric, and has small bony processes; unlike the head, it moves with the trunk.

Second maneuver

After the upper abdomen has been palpated and the form that is found is identified, the individual performing the maneuver attempts to determine the location of the fetal back. Still facing the woman, the health care provider palpates the abdomen with gentle but also deep pressure using the palms of his or her hands. First the right hand remains steady on one side of the abdomen while the left hand explores the right side of the woman's uterus. This is then repeated using the opposite side and hands. The fetal back will feel firm and smooth while fetal extremities (arms, legs, etc.) should feel like small irregularities and protrusions. The fetal back, once determined, should connect with the form found in the upper abdomen and also a mass in the maternal inlet, lower abdomen.

Third maneuver - Pawlick's Grip

In the third maneuver the health care provider attempts to determine what fetal part is lying above the inlet, or lower abdomen. The individual performing the maneuver first grasps the lower portion of the abdomen just above the symphysis pubis with the thumb and fingers of the right hand. This maneuver should yield the opposite information and validate the findings of the first maneauver. If the woman enters labor, this is the part which will most likely come first in a vaginal birth. If it is the head and is not actively engaged in the birthing process, it may be gently pushed back and forth.

Fourth maneuver

The last maneuver requires that the health care provider face the woman's feet, as he or she will attempt to locate the fetus' brow. The fingers of both hands are moved gently down the sides of the uterus toward the pubis. The side where there is the resistance to the descent of the fingers toward the pubis is greatest is where the brow is located. If the head of the fetus is well flexed, it should be on the opposite side from the fetal back. If the fetal head is extended though, the occiput is instead felt and is located on the same side as the back .

Cautions

Leopold's maneuvers are intended to be performed by health care professionals, as they have received training and instruction in how to perform them. That said, as long as care is taken not to roughly or excessively disturb the fetus, there is no real reason it cannot be performed at home as an informational exercise. It is important to note that all findings are not truly diagnostic, and as such ultrasound is required to conclusively determine fetal lie.

The Menstrual Cycle

2008-02-22T03:43:00.000-08:00

The Menstrual Cycle

The "typical" menstrual cycle occurs regularly over 28 days. Most women have cycles with an interval that lasts from 21 to 35 days. Frequently cycles are unusually short or long during adolescence.

THE FIRST HALF OF THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE (Day 1 to About Day 14 in a 28-Day Cycle)

The Menstrual Phase

The first day of your menstrual period is considered Day 1 of your cycle. The menstrual phase includes your period. During this time, the endometrium (the built-up lining of the uterus) is shed, along with a little blood. Many of the problems that women experience with their menstrual cycle occur during this phase. For example, some women experience menstrual disorders such as dysmenorrhea (painful periods) or menorrhagia (unusually heavy periods).

The Follicular/Proliferate Phase

During the proliferate phase, the body produces a hormone called follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Follicle-stimulating hormone promotes the growth of a follicle (egg sac) within the ovary. An ovum (egg) matures in the follicle during the proliferative phase. FSH also stimulates the ovary to produce increasing amounts of estrogen. In turn, the estrogen causes endometrial tissue to build up (or proliferate), lining the interior of the uterus.

THE MIDPOINT OF THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE (About Day 14 in a 28-Day Cycle)

The mature ovum bursts from the follicle about midway (approximately 2 weeks before onset of next menstrual period) through the menstrual cycle. This process is known as ovulation. The ovum then travels from the ovary down the fallopian tube, and into the uterus.

The Luteal/Secretory Phase

Once the ovum has been released, the follicle becomes a sac known as the corpus luteum ("yellow body," because it contains yellowish, fatty matter). A hormone called luteinizing hormone (LH) causes the corpus luteum to grow and to secrete progesterone, another female hormone.

During the secretory phase, progesterone makes the endometrial lining stronger and spongy in texture. Progesterone also stimulates glands in the endometrium. These glands produce uterine fluid, and their purpose is to support embryonic development if fertilization has occurred at or around the time of ovulation. It is in this phase of the menstrual cycle that women who suffer from premenstrual syndrome (PMS) may begin to experience their symptoms. Generally symptoms are worse during the last seven to ten days of the cycle, ending at or soon after the start of the menstrual period. In a woman who hasn't become pregnant, the level of progesterone peaks about a week after ovulation and then begins to drop along with the estrogen level. The flow of blood to the endometrium decreases, and its upper portion is broken down and shed during menstruation. At the same time, the corpus luteum withers.

The dip in estrogen and progesterone at the end of the cycle help let the body know that it's time to start the cycle all over again. The menstrual cycle doesn't have to be a drag, it actually shows how complex your body is and a sign that it is functioning properly! Congratulations, you are a woman and being a woman is terrific!

What You Need To Know About Menstruation

2008-02-22T03:33:00.000-08:00

What You Need To Know About Menstruation

If you're a teenage girl you probably have started having a period. If you have not, you might be anxious about the subject or a bit concerned. This whole menstruation thing might seem a bit mysterious, it is to many young women. It's actually very complex, but interesting too.

Menstruation is the outward proof that a girl is becoming a woman. Having a period is your body's way of saying it’s functioning properly.

During puberty, hormones are released from the brain that stimulate the ovaries. The ovaries then produce estrogen and progesterone -- hormones that cause the eggs in the ovaries to mature so the woman can become pregnant when she chooses to. Here's how the process goes:

Every month, one egg leaves one of the ovaries on its way to the uterus via the fallopian tubes. Meanwhile, in preparation for the egg, the uterus starts to develop a thicker lining and it’s walls become cushiony (the endometrial lining). If the egg reaches the uterus and is fertilized by a sperm cell, it attaches to this cushiony wall.

Most of the time the egg just passes right through without fertilization. Since the uterus no longer needs the extra blood and tissue which made up the walls thick, it sheds them by way of the vagina. This cycle will happen nearly every month until the ovaries stop releasing eggs, usually several decades later. (Menopause).

Periods are different for every woman. Some girls start menstruation when they're 9 or 10; some in their late teens. The length of the cycle also varies. Some periods last longer than 28 days, some shorter. If you have just begun your menstruation, your body will need time to regulate itself to these changes. Your periods might be a bit erratic at first. You may have two cycles in one month and miss having one the next month. How long your period lasts also varies . Some girls have their periods for only 3 or 4 days, others as long as a week. The menstrual flow of blood can vary from woman to woman also.

Some girls may have body and or mood changes around the time of their period. Menstrual cramps are pretty common during the first few days of your period. These are most likely caused by prostagladins. Prostaglandins causes the muscles of the uterus to contract. These cramps tend to become less uncomfortable and sometimes even disappear completely as a girl gets older. Over-the-counter pain medication like ibuprofen or acetaminophen can often give relief; if not, a health care provider can help. If your cramps are very severe, see a gynecologist.

As your period approaches, you may experience premenstrual syndrome (PMS). You may find your emotions amplified during this time. Many women get depressed, irritated, angry, and others cry more than usual or get cravings for certain foods. PMS may be related to changes in hormones. Hormone levels rise and fall during a menstrual cycle, affecting the way a female feels both mentally and physically.

Emotions can become more intense than usual, and many women may feel bloated because of water retention. When your period begins, PMS usually goes away. You may also have acne flare-ups.

Periods are a complex part of puberty, but also your body's way of telling you it is functioning properly and you have taken good care of it. You can still exercise, swim and do everything you enjoy. If you have any questions about periods, ask a parent, health teacher, health care provider, or nurse. You can also ask friends or sisters who have already had their periods. In time you will see that periods are a normal and routine part of your life.

Common Medical Abbreviations

2008-02-17T22:27:00.000-08:00

AAA abdominal aortic aneurysm
A-a gradient alveolar to arterial gradient
AAD antibiotic-associated diarrhea
AAO alert, awake, and oriented
A&O alert & oriented
AAS acute abdominal series
ABD abdomen
ABG arterial blood gas
AC before eating
ACLS advanced cardiac life support
ACTH adrenocorticotropic hormone
ADH anti-diuretic hormone
ADR adverse drug reaction. | acute dystonic reaction
ad lib as much as needed
AED antiepileptic drug
AF atrial fibrillation or afebrile
AFB acid-fast bacilli
AFP alpha-fetoprotein
A /G albumin/globulin ratio
AI aortic insufficiency
AKA above the knee amputation
ALD alcoholic liver disease
ALL acute lymphocytic leukemia
amb ambulate
AML acute myelogenous leukemia
ANA antinuclear antibody
ANS autonomic nervous system
AOB alcohol on breath
AODM adult onset diabetes mellitus
AP anteroposterior or abdominal - perineal
ARDS acute respiratory distress syndrome
ARF acute renal failure
AS aortic stenosis
ASAP as soon as possible
ASCVD atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease
ASD atrial septal defect
ASHD atherosclerotic heart disease
AV atrioventricular
A-V arteriovenous
A-VO2 arteriovenous oxygen

BBB bundle branch block
BCAA branched chain amino acids
BE barium enema
BEE basal energy expenditure
bid twice a day
BKA below the knee amputation
BM bone marrow or bowel movement
BMR basal metabolic rate
BOM bilateral otitis media
BP blood pressure
BPH benign prostatic hypertrophy
BPM beats per minute
BRBPR bright red blood per rectum
BRP bathroom priviledges
BS bowel or breath sounds
BUN blood urea nitrogen
BW body weight
BX biopsy

C with
C&S culture and sensitivity
CA cancer
Ca calcium
CAA crystalline amino acids
CABG coronary artery bypass graft
CAD coronary artery disease
CAT computerized axial tomography
CBC complete blood count
CBG capillary blood gas
CC chief complaint
CCU clean catch urine or cardiac care unit
CCV critical closing volume
CF cystic fibrosis
CGL chronic granulocytic leukemia
CHF congestive heart failure
CHO carbohydrate
CI cardiac index
CML chronic myelogenous leukemia
CMV cytomegalovirus
CN cranial nerves
CNS central nervous system
CO cardiac output
C/O complaining of
COLD chronic obstructive lung disease
COPD chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
CP chest pain or cerebral palsy
CPAP continuous positive airway pressure
CPK creatine phosphokinase
CPR cardiopulmonary resuscitation
CRCL creatinine clearance
CRF chronic renal failure
CRP C-reactive protein
CSF cerebrospinal fluid
CT computerized tomography
CVA cerebrovascular accident or costovertebral angle
CVAT CVA tenderness
CVP central venous pressure
CXR chest X-ray

DAT diet as tolerated
DAW dispense as written
DC discontinue or discharge
D&C dilation and curettage
DDx differential diagnosis
D5W 5% dextrose in water
DI diabetes insipidus
DIC disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
DIP distal interphalangeal joint
DJD degenerative joint disease
DKA diabetic ketoacidosis
dL deciliter
DM diabetes mellitus
DNR do not resuscitate
DOA dead on arrival
DOE dyspnea on exertion
DPL diagnostic peritoneal lavage
DPT diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus
DTR deep tendon reflexes
DVT deep venous thrombosis
DX diagnosis

EAA essential amino acids
EBL estimated blood loss
ECG electrocardiogram
ECT electroconvulsive therapy
EFAD essential fatty acid deficiency
EMG Electromyogram
EMV eyes, motor, verbal response (Glasgow coma scale)
ENT ears, nose, and throat
EOM extraocular muscles
ESR erythrocyte sedimentation rate
ET endotracheal
ETT endotracheal tube
ERCP endoscopic retrograde cholangio -pancreatography
ETOH ethanol
EUA examination under anesthesia

FBS fasting blood sugar
FEV forced expiratory volume
FFP fresh frozen plasma
FRC functional residual capacity
FTT failure to thrive
FU follow-up
FUO fever of unknown origin
FVC forced vital capacity
Fx fracture

GC gonorrhea
GETT general by endotracheal tube
GFR glomerular filtration rate
GI gastrointestinal
gr grain; 1 grain = 65mg. Therefore Vgr = 325mg
GSW gun shot wound
gt or gtt drops
GTT glucose tolerance test
GU genitourinary
GXT graded exercise tolerance (Stress test)

HA headache
HAA hepatitis B surface antigen
HAV hepatitis A virus
HBP high blood pressure
HCG human chorionic gonadotropin
HCT hematocrit
HDL high density lipoprotein
HEENT head, eyes, ears, nose, throat
Hgb hemoglobin
H/H henderson- hasselbach equation or hemoglobin/ hematocrit
HIV human immunodeficiency virus
HLA histocompatibility locus antigen
HJR hepatojugular reflex
HO history of
HOB head of bed
HPF high power field
HPI history of present illness
HR heart rate
HS at bedtime
HSM hepatosplenomegaly
HTLV-III human lymphotropic virus, type III (AIDS agent, HIV)
HSV herpes simplex virus
HTN hypertension
Hx history

I&D incision and drainage
I&O intake and output
ICS intercostal space
ICU intensive care unit
ID infectious disease or identification
IDDM insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
IG immunoglobulin
IHSS idiopathic hypertropic subaortic stenosis
IM intramuscular
IMV intermittent mandatory ventilation
INF intravenous nutritional fluid
IPPB intermittent positive pressure breathing
IRBBB incomplete right bundle branch block
IRDM insulin resistant diabetes mellitus
IT interthecal
ITP idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
IV intravenous
IVC intravenous cholangiogram | inferior vena cava
IVP intravenous pyelogram

JODM juvenile onset diabetes mellitus
JVD jugular venous distention

KOR keep open rate
KUB kidneys, ureters, bladder
KVO keep vein open

L left
LAD left axis deviation or left anterior descending
LAE left atrial enlargement
LAHB left anterior hemiblock
LAP left atrial pressure or leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
LBBB left bundle branch block
LDH lactate dehydrogenase
LE lupus erythematosus
LIH left inguinal hernia
LLL left lower lobe
LMP last menstrual period
LNMP last normal menstrual period
LOC loss of consciousness or level of consciousness
LP lumbar puncture
LPN licensed practical nurse
LUL left upper lobe
LUQ Left Upper Quadrant
LV left ventricle
LVEDP left ventricular end diastolic pressure
LVH left ventricular hypertrophy

MAO monoamine oxidase
MAP mean arterial pressure
MAST medical antishock trousers
MBT maternal blood type
MCH mean cell hemoglobin
MCHC mean cell hemoglobin concentration
MCV mean cell volume
MI myocardial infarction or mitral insufficiency
mL milliliter
MLE midline episiotomy
MMEF maximal mid expiratory flow
mmol millimole
MMR measles, mumps, rubella
MRI magnetic resonance imaging
MRSA methicillin resistant staph aureus
MS multiple sclerosis or mitral stenosis, or morphine sulfate
MSSA methicillin-sensitive staph aureus
MVA motor vehicle accident
MVI multivitamin injection
MVV maximum voluntary ventilation

NAD no active disease
NAS no added salt
NCV nerve conduction velocity
NED no evidence of recurrent disease
ng nanogram
NG nasogastric
NIDDM non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
NKA no known allergies
NKDA no known drug allergies
NMR nuclear magnetic resonance
NPO nothing by mouth
NRM no regular medications
NSAID non-steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs
NSR normal sinus rhythm
NT nasotracheal

OB obstetrics
OCG oral cholecystogram
OD overdose or right eye
OM otitis media
OOB out of bed
OPV oral polio vaccine
OR operating room
OS left eye
OU both eyes

P para
PA posteroanterior
PAC premature atrial contraction
PAO2 alveolar oxygen
PaO2 peripheral arterial oxygen content
PAP pulmonary artery pressure
PAT paroxysymal atrial tachycardia
P&PD percussion and postural drainage
PC after eating
PCWP pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
PDA patent ductus arteriosus
PDR physicians desk reference
PE pulmonary embolus, or physical exam or pleural effusion
PEEP positive end expiratory pressure
PFT pulmonary function tests
pg picogram
PI pulmonic insufficiency disease
PKU phenylketonuria
PMH previous medical history
PMI point of maximal impulse
PMN polymorphonuclear leukocyte (neutrophil)
PND paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
PO by mouth
POD post-op day
PP postprandial or pulsus paradoxus
PPD purified protein derivative
PR by rectum
PRBC packed red blood cells
PRN as needed
PS pulmonic stenosis
PT prothrombin time, or physical therapy
Pt patient
PTCA percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
PTH parathyroid hormone
PTHC percutanous transhepatic cholangiogram
PTT partial thromboplastin time
PUD peptic ulcer disease
PVC premature ventricular contraction
PVD peripheral vascular disease

q every (e.g. q6h = every 6 hours)
qd every day
qh every hour
q4h, q6h.... every 4 hours, every 6 hours etc.
qid four times a day
QNS quantity not sufficient
qod every other day
Qs/Qt shunt fraction
Qt total cardiac output

R right
RA rheumatoid arthritis or right atrium
RAD right atrial axis deviation
RAE right atrial enlargement
RAP right atrial pressure
RBBB right bundle branch block
RBC red blood cell
RBP retinol-binding protein
RDA recommended daily allowance
RDW red cell distribution width
RIA radioimmunoassay
RIH right inguinal hernia
RLL right lower lobe
RLQ right lower quadrant
RML right middle lobe
RNA ribonucleic acid
R/O rule out
ROM range of motion
ROS review of systems
RPG retrograde pyelogram
RRR regular rate and rhythm
RT respiratory or radiation therapy
RTA renal tubular acidosis
RTC return to clinic
RU resin uptake
RUG retrograde urethogram
RUL right upper lobe
RUQ right upper quadrant
RV residual volume
RVH right ventricular hyperthrophy
Rx treatment

s without | ss = one-half
SA sinoatrial
SAA synthetic amino acid
S&E sugar and acetone
SBE subacute bacterial endocarditis
SBFT small bowel follow through
SBS short bowel syndrome
SCr serum creatinine
SEM systolic ejection murmur
SG Swan-Ganz
SGA small for gestational age
SGGT serum gamma- glutamyl transpeptidase
SGOT serum glutamic- oxaloacetic transaminase
SGPT serum glutamic- pyruvic transaminase
SIADH syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
sig write on label
SIMV synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation
sl sublingual
SLE systemic lupus erythematous
SMO slips made out
SOAP subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
SOB shortness of breath
SQ subcutaneous
STAT immediately
SVD spontaneous vaginal delivery
Sx symptoms

T&C type and cross
TAH total abdominal hysterectomy
T&H type and hold
TB tuberculosis
TBG total binding globulin
Td tetanus-diphtheria toxoid
TIA transient ischemic attack
TIBC total iron binding capacity
tid three times a day
TIG tetanus immune globulin
TKO to keep open
TLC total lung capacity
TMJ temporo mandibular joint
TNTC too numerous to count
TO telephone order
TOPV trivalent oral polio vaccine
TPN total parenteral nutrition
TSH thyroid stimulating hormone
TT thrombin time
TTP thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
TU tuberculin units
TUR transurethral resection
TURBT TUR bladder tumors
TURP transurethral resection of prostate
TV tidal volume
TVH total vaginal hysterectomy
tw twice a week
Tx treatment, transplant

UA urinalysis
UAC uric acid | umbilical artery catheter
UAO upper airway obstruction
UBD universal blood donor
UC ulcerative colitis | umbilical cord
ud as directed
UFH unfractionated heparin
UGI upper gastrointestinal
URI upper respiratory infection
URQ upper right quadrant
US ultrasound
UTI urinary tract infection
UUN urinary urea nitrogen
UVA ultraviolet A light

VAD venous access device
VC vital capacity
VCT venous clotting time
VCUG voiding cysourethrogram
VDRL Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (test for syphilis)
VMA vanillymadelic acid
VO verbal or voice order
V/Q ventilation - perfusion
VRE vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
VSS vital signs stable
VT ventricular tachycardia
VV varicose veins
VW vessel wall
VWD von Willebrand's disease
VZV varicella zoster virus

WB whole blood
WBC white blood cell or count
WBR whole body radiation
WD well developed
WF white female
WIA wounded in action
WID widow, widower
WM white male
WN well nourished
WNL within normal limits
WO written order | weeks old | wide open.
WOP without pain
W.P. whirlpool
WPW Wolff-Parkinson-White
W-T-D wet to dry
W/U workup

X2d times 2 days.
XI Eleven
XII Twelve
XL extended release. | extra large.
XM Crossmatch
XMM Xeromammography
XOM extraocular movements
XRT X-ray therapy (radiation therapy)
XS Excessive
XULN times upper limit of normal

YF yellow fever
YLC youngest living child
yo years old
YOB year of birth
yr year
ytd year to date

ZDV zidovudine
ZE Zollinger-Ellison
Z-ESR zeta erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Zn zinc
ZnO zinc oxide
ZSB zero stools since birth

MCN Notes on Umbilical Cord Prolapse

2008-02-08T04:27:00.000-08:00

Umbilical Cord Prolapse

What is the umbilical cord?

The umbilical cord is a flexible, tube-like structure that, during pregnancy, connects the fetus to the mother. The umbilical cord is the baby’s lifeline to the mother. It transports nutrients to the baby and also carries away the baby’s waste products. It is made up of three blood vessels – two arteries and one vein.

What is umbilical cord prolapse?

Umbilical cord prolapse is a complication that occurs prior to or during delivery of the baby. In a prolapse, the umbilical cord drops (prolapses) through the open cervix into the vagina ahead of the baby. The cord can then become trapped against the baby’s body during delivery. Umbilical cord prolapse occurs in approximately one in every 300 births.

What causes an umbilical cord prolapse?

The most common cause of an umbilical cord prolapse is a premature rupture of the membranes that contain the amniotic fluid. Other causes include:
• Premature delivery of the baby
• Delivering more than one baby per pregnancy (twins, triplets, etc.)
• Excessive amniotic fluid
• Breech delivery (the baby comes through the birth canal feet first)
• An umbilical cord that is longer than usual

What are the consequences of umbilical cord prolapse?

An umbilical cord prolapse presents a great danger to the fetus. During the delivery, the fetus can put stress on the cord. This can result in a loss of oxygen to the fetus, and may even result in a stillbirth.

How is an umbilical cord prolapse detected?

The doctor can diagnose a prolapsed umbilical cord in several ways. During delivery, the doctor will use a fetal heart monitor to measure the baby’s heart rate. If the umbilical cord has prolapsed, the baby may have bradycardia (a heart rate of less than 120 beats per minute). The doctor can also conduct a pelvic examination and may see the prolapsed cord, or palpate (feel) the cord with his or her fingers.

How is an umbilical cord prolapse managed?

Because of the risk of lack of oxygen to the fetus, an umbilical cord prolapse must be dealt with immediately. If the doctor finds a prolapsed cord, he or she can move the fetus away from the cord in order to reduce the risk of oxygen loss.
In some cases, the baby will have to be delivered immediately by cesarean section. If the problem with the prolapsed cord can be solved immediately, there may be no permanent injury. However, the longer the delay, the greater the chance of problems (such as brain damage or death) for the baby.

Hydatidiform mole

Definition

A hydatidiform mole is a rare mass or growth that may form inside the uterus at the beginning of a pregnancy. See also choriocarcinoma.

Alternative Names

Hydatid mole; Molar pregnancy

Causes

A hydatidiform mole results from over-production of the tissue that is supposed to develop into the placenta. The placenta normally nourishes a fetus during pregnancy. Instead, these tissues develop into a mass. The mass is usually made up of placental material that grows uncontrolled. Often, there is no fetus at all.
The cause is not completely understood. Potential causes may include defects in the egg, abnormalities within the uterus, or nutritional deficiencies. Women under 20 or over 40 years of age have a higher risk. Other risk factors include diets low in protein, folic acid, and carotene.

Symptoms

• Vaginal bleeding in pregnancy during the first trimester
• Nausea and vomiting, severe enough to require hospitalization in 10% of cases
• An abnormal growth in the size of the uterus, for the stage of the pregnancy
o Excessive growth in approximately 1/2 of cases
o Smaller-than-expected growth in approximately 1/3 of cases
• Symptoms of hyperthyroidism:
o Rapid heart rate
o Restlessness, nervousness
o Heat intolerance
o Unexplained weight loss
o Loose stools
o Trembling hands
o Skin warmer and more moist than usual
• Symptoms similiar to preeclampsia that occur in the 1st trimester or early in the 2nd trimester. (This almost always indicates hydatidiform mole, because preeclampsia is extremely rare this early in normal pregnancies.)
o High blood pressure
o Swelling in feet, ankles, legs
o Proteinuria

Note: All symptoms occur in conjunction with a potential, suspected, or confirmed pregnancy.

Exams and Tests

A pelvic examination may show signs similar to a normal pregnancy, but the uterine size may be abnormal and fetal heart tones are absent. Additionally, some bleeding may be noted.

Tests typically include:
• Measurement of serum HCG to confirm pregnancy. Repeated HCG measurements can be used to monitor the rate and consistency of decline if a hydatidiform mole is suspected.
• An ultrasound of the pelvis.
• A chest X-ray and abdominal CT or MRI will be recommended for some patients.

This disease may also alter the results of the following tests:
• Transvaginal ultrasound
• HCG (quantitative)

Treatment

If a miscarriage does not occur and the diagnosis is confirmed, a therapeutic abortion is performed by suction curettage (D and C).
Following either case, serum HCG levels are monitored to assure they return to a normal, non-pregnant level. A hysterectomy may be an option for older women who do not desire future pregnancies.

Outlook (Prognosis)

More than 80% of hydatidiform moles are benign (non-cancerous). The outcome after treatment is usually excellent. Close follow-up is essential. Highly effective means of contraception are recommended to avoid pregnancy for at least 6-12 months.
In 10-15% of cases, hydatidiform moles may develop into invasive moles. These may intrude so far into the uterine wall that hemorrhage or other complications develop.
In 2-3% of cases, hydatidiform moles may develop into choriocarcinoma, which is a malignant, rapidly growing, and metastatic (spreading) form of cancer. Despite these factors, which normally indicate a poor prognosis, the rate of cure after treatment with chemotherapy is high.
Over 90% of women with malignant, non-spreading cancer are able to survive and retain their ability to have children. In those with metastatic (spreading) cancer, remission remains at 75-85%, although the ability to have children is usually lost.

Possible Complications

Lung insufficiency may develop after evacuation of the uterus in cases where the uterus enlarges to greater than 16 weeks gestational size.

When to Contact a Medical Professional

Call your obstetrician if you suspect a hydatidiform mole.
If you have symptoms suggestive of preeclampsia -- such as severe swelling in the legs and feet, abdominal pain and high blood pressure -- see your health care provider immediately, call 911, or get to the emergency room. This can rapidly become a life-threatening emergency.

Prevention

Adequate nutrition may reduce the risk

MCN Notes on Preeclampsia and Eclampsia

2008-02-07T04:30:00.000-08:00

Preeclampsia and Eclampsia

What is preeclampsia?

Also referred to as toxemia, preeclampsia is a condition that pregnant women can get and is marked by three specific symptoms: water retention (with swelling particularly in the face and hands), high blood pressure and protein in the urine.
Preeclampsia, when present, usually appears during the second half of pregnancy, usually after the 20th week, but can appear as early as the fifth month.

What is eclampsia?

Eclampsia is the final and most severe phase of preeclampsia and occurs when preeclampsia is left untreated. In addition to the previously mentioned symptoms, women with eclampsia have seizures. Eclampsia can cause coma and even death of the mother and baby and can occur before, during or after childbirth.

What causes preeclampsia and eclampsia?

The exact causes of preeclampsia and eclampsia are not known, although some researchers suspect poor nutrition, high body fat or insufficient blood flow to the uterus as possible causes.

Who is at risk for preeclampsia?

Preeclampsia is most often seen in first-time pregnancies and in pregnant teens and women over 40. Other risk factors include:
• A history of chronic high blood pressure or "hypertension"
• Previous history of preeclampsia
• Obesity prior to pregnancy
• Carrying more than one baby
• History of diabetes, kidney disease, lupus or rheumatoid arthritis

How can I tell if I have preeclampsia?

In addition to swelling, protein in the urine, and high blood pressure, symptoms of preeclampsia can include:
• Rapid weight gain caused by a significant increase in bodily fluid
• Abdominal pain
• Severe headaches
• A change in reflexes
• Reduced output of urine or no urine
• Blood in the urine
• Dizziness or visual disturbances
• Excessive vomiting and nausea

Does swelling during pregnancy mean I have preeclampsia?

Some swelling is normal during pregnancy. However, if the swelling doesn’t go away and is accompanied by some of the above symptoms, be sure to see your doctor right away.

How can preeclampsia affect my baby?

Preeclampsia can prevent the placenta from receiving enough blood, which can cause your baby to be born very small. It is also one of the leading causes of premature births and the difficulties that can accompany them, including learning disabilities, epilepsy, cerebral palsy, and hearing and vision problems.

How is preeclampsia and eclampsia treated?

The only real cure for preeclampsia and eclampsia is the birth of the baby. If the baby is pre-term, the condition can be managed until your baby can be safely delivered. Your health care provider may prescribe bed rest, hospitalization or medication to prolong the pregnancy and increase your unborn baby’s chances of survival. If your baby is close to term, labor may be induced.

MCN Notes on Placenta Previa

2008-02-07T04:16:00.000-08:00

Placenta Previa

What is placenta previa?

Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta (the organ that connects the developing fetus to the mother’s uterus) lies low in the uterus. The placenta might partly or completely cover the cervix. The condition might cause vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa is a serious condition that requires prompt care.

What causes placenta previa?

The cause of placenta previa is unknown. The condition is more common among women who smoke, use cocaine, or are over 35. It occurs far more frequently in women having their second or later babies than in first pregnancies. Women also are at increased risk if they have had previous uterine surgery, including a c-section, a D&C (dilation and curettage), or an abortion. Being pregnant with twins (or a higher number of multiples) is another risk factor for placenta previa. There is a four to eight percent chance of a recurrence in women who have had a placenta previa in a previous pregnancy.

What are the symptoms of placenta previa?

Painless vaginal bleeding is the primary symptom of placenta previa. Bleeding might be heavy or light, and it might occur at the end of the second trimester or the beginning of the third trimester. Additional symptoms of placenta previa can include low blood pressure, shortness of breath, anemia, pale skin, and a weak pulse.
How is placenta previa diagnosed?
A health care provider will perform a physical exam and a complete medical history to diagnose placenta previa. In addition, an ultrasound can be used to confirm the diagnosis.

How is placenta previa treated?

A woman with placenta previa might need to stay in the hospital until delivery. If the bleeding stops, as it often does, her doctor will continue to monitor her and her baby. A pregnant woman will probably be treated with a corticosteroid drug if she is likely to deliver before 34 weeks.
If the bleeding does not stop, or if the woman goes into labor, her health care provider will probably recommend a prompt c-section. Cesarean delivery is recommended for nearly all women with placenta previa because c-sections usually can prevent severe bleeding.

MCN Notes on Ectopic Pregnancy

2008-02-05T15:46:00.000-08:00

Ectopic Pregnancy

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

An ectopic pregnancy occurs when the embryo does not implant in the uterus. In many cases of ectopic pregnancy, the embryo implants in one of the fallopian tubes. In rare cases, the embryo attaches to an ovary or other abdominal organs.
Ectopic pregnancy is a potentially life-threatening condition and requires prompt treatment. It usually is discovered by the eighth week of pregnancy.

What causes an ectopic pregnancy?

In most cases, an ectopic pregnancy is caused by conditions that slow down or block the movement of the egg down the fallopian tube and into the uterus. Certain risk factors exist for ectopic pregnancy. A risk factor is a trait or behavior that increases a person’s chance of developing a disease or predisposes a person to a certain condition. Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include:
•Use of an intrauterine device (IUD), a form of birth control, at the time of conception
•History of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
•Sexually-transmitted diseases such as chlamydia and gonorrhea
•Congenital abnormality of the fallopian tube
•History of pelvic surgery — Scarring might block the fertilized egg from leaving the fallopian tube.
•History of ectopic pregnancy
•Tubal ligation (surgical sterilization), unsuccessful tubal ligation, or reversal of tubal ligation
•Use of fertility drugs
•Infertility treatments such as in vitro fertilization (IVF) or gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)

What are the symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy?

Common symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy include:
•Vaginal bleeding
•Signs of early pregnancy
•Lower abdominal or pelvic pain
•Dizziness or weakness

If the fallopian tube ruptures, the pain and bleeding could be severe enough to cause fainting. Contact your health care provider if you are experiencing any of the above symptoms.

How is an ectopic pregnancy diagnosed?

A health care provider will perform a pregnancy test, a pelvic exam, and an ultrasound test to view the condition of the uterus and fallopian tubes.
How is an ectopic pregnancy treated?
In some cases, medicine might be used to stop the growth of pregnancy tissue. If there is a ruptured fallopian tube, emergency surgery might be necessary to stop the bleeding. A laparotomy (a procedure during which an incision is made in the abdomen and the embryonic tissue is removed) might be needed if the embryo is large or blood loss is considered life-threatening. Laparoscopic surgery (minimally invasive surgery) might be appropriate if the fallopian tube is not ruptured and the pregnancy has not progressed very far. In some cases, the fallopian tube and ovary might be damaged and have to be removed, depending on the progression of the pregnancy. Most women who have had an ectopic pregnancy can go on to have subsequent normal pregnancies and births. Discuss the timing of your next pregnancy with your health care provider.

Can an ectopic pregnancy be prevented?

Ectopic pregnancy cannot be prevented. However, treatment of any risk factors the mother might have can improve the chances for a successful pregnancy

MCN Notes on Uterine Prolapse

2008-02-04T03:34:00.000-08:00

Uterine Prolapse

What is uterine prolapse?
Uterine prolapse is a condition in which a woman's uterus (womb) sags or slips out of its normal position. The uterus may slip enough that it drops partway into the vagina (birth canal), creating a lump or bulge. This is called incomplete prolapse. In a more severe case--called complete prolapse--the uterus slips so far out of place that some of the tissue drops outside of the vagina.

What are the symptoms of uterine prolapse?
Women with mild cases of uterine prolapse may have no obvious symptoms. However, as the uterus slips further out of position, it can place pressure on other pelvic organs--such as the bladder or bowel--causing a variety of symptoms, including:

A feeling of heaviness or pressure in the pelvis
Pain in the pelvis, abdomen or lower back
Pain during intercourse
A protrusion of tissue from the opening of the vagina
Recurrent bladder infections
Unusual or excessive discharge from the vagina
Constipation
Difficulty with urination, including involuntary loss of urine (incontinence), or urinary frequency or urgency

Symptoms may be worsened by prolonged standing or walking. This is due to the added pressure placed on the pelvic muscles by gravity.

What causes uterine prolapse?
The uterus is held in place within the pelvis by a group of muscles and ligaments. As these structures weaken, they become unable to hold the uterus in position, and it begins to sag. There are several factors that may contribute to the weakening of the pelvic muscles, including:

Loss of muscle tone as the result of aging
Injury during childbirth, especially if the woman has had many babies or large babies (more than 9 pounds)
Other factors (Obesity, chronic coughing or straining and chronic constipation all place added tension on the pelvic muscles, and may contribute to the development of uterine prolapse.)

Who gets uterine prolapse?
Uterine prolapse most often occurs in women who have had more than one baby through normal vaginal delivery and in post-menopausal women. Menopause occurs when a woman's ovaries stop producing the hormones that regulate her monthly menstrual cycle, and she stops having regular menstrual periods. One of these hormones, estrogen, helps keep the pelvic muscles strong.

How common is uterine prolapse?
Uterine prolapse is fairly common, and the risk of developing the condition increases with age.

How is uterine prolapse diagnosed?
The doctor will perform a pelvic examination to determine if the uterus has lowered from its normal position. During a pelvic exam, the doctor inserts a speculum (an instrument that lets the clinician see inside the vagina) and examines the vagina and uterus. The doctor will feel for any bulges caused by the uterus protruding into the vaginal canal.

How is uterine prolapse treated?
There are surgical and non-surgical options for treating uterine prolapse. The treatment chosen will depend on the severity of the condition, as well as the woman's general health, age and desire to have children. Treatment generally is effective for most women. Treatment options include the following:

Non-surgical options

Exercise -- Special exercises, called Kegel exercises, can help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles. This may be the only treatment needed in mild cases of uterine prolapse. To do Kegel exercises, tighten your pelvic muscles as if you are trying to hold back urine. Hold the muscles tight for a few seconds and then release. Repeat 10 times. You may do these exercises anywhere and at any time (up to four times a day).

Vaginal pessary -- A pessary is a rubber or plastic doughnut-shaped device that fits around or under the lower part of the uterus (cervix), helping to prop up the uterus and hold it in place. A health care provider will fit and insert the pessary, which must be cleaned frequently and removed before sex.

Estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) -- Taking estrogen may help to limit further weakness of the muscles and other connective tissues that support the uterus. However, there are some drawbacks to taking estrogen, such as an increased risk of blood clots, gallbladder disease and breast cancer. The decision to use ERT must be made with your doctor after carefully weighing all of the risks and benefits.

Surgical options

Hysterectomy -- Uterine prolapse may be treated by removing the uterus in a surgical procedure called hysterectomy. This may be done through an incision made in the vagina (vaginal hysterectomy) or through the abdomen (abdominal hysterectomy). Hysterectomy is major surgery, and removing the uterus means pregnancy is no longer possible.

Uterine suspension -- This procedure involves putting the uterus back into its normal position. This may be done by reattaching the pelvic ligaments to the lower part of the uterus to hold it in place. Another technique uses a special material that acts like a sling to support the uterus in its proper position. Recent advances include performing this with minimally invasive techniques and laparoscopically (through small band aid sized incisions) that decrease post operative pain and speed recovery.

What are the complications of uterine prolapse?
Left untreated, uterine prolapse can interfere with bowel, bladder and sexual functions.

Can uterine prolapse be prevented?
It may not be possible to prevent all cases of uterine prolapse, but there are steps that can be taken to help reduce the risk:

Maintain a healthy body weight.
Exercise regularly (for 20 to 30 minutes, three to five times per week), including Kegel exercises, which may be done up to four times a day. Be sure to check with your health care provider before starting any new exercise program.
Eat a healthy diet balanced in protein, fat and carbohydrates. For example, eat at least 5 to 9 servings of fruits and vegetables per day. Also, eat food that is high in dietary fiber (such as whole grain cereals, legumes and vegetables), and minimize your daily fat intake to 25 to 30 grams. Using the Food Guide Pyramid (visit the web site: mypyramid.gov) is a good way to help ensure that you are meeting your nutrition needs. A healthy diet can help maintain weight and prevent constipation.
Stop smoking. This reduces the risk of developing a chronic cough, which can put extra strain on the pelvic muscles.
Consider estrogen replacement therapy after menopause.
Use correct lifting techniques.

Proper techniques for lifting

Do not try to lift objects that are awkward or too heavy for you to lift alone. Also, avoid lifting heavy objects above waist level.
Before you lift an object, make sure you have firm footing.
To pick up an object that is lower than the level of your waist, keep your back straight, and bend at your knees and hips. Do not bend forward at the waist with your knees straight.
Stand with a wide stance close to the object you are trying to pick up, and keep your feet firm on the ground. Tighten your stomach muscles and lift the object using your leg muscles. Straighten your knees in a steady motion. Do not jerk the object up to your body.
Stand completely upright without twisting. Always move your feet forward when lifting an object.
If you are lifting an object from a table, slide it to the edge to the table so that you can hold it close to your body. Bend your knees so that you are close to the object. Use your legs to lift the object and come to a standing position.
Hold packages close to your body with your arms bent. Keep your stomach muscles tight. Take small steps and go slowly.
To lower the object, place your feet as you did to lift, tighten stomach muscles and bend your hips and knees.

PATIENT’S BILL OF RIGHTS

2008-01-31T21:47:00.000-08:00

PATIENT’S BILL OF RIGHTS

The patient has the right to considerate and respectful care.
The patient has the right to obtain from his physician complete and current information concerning his diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis in terms the patient can be reasonably expected to understand.
The patient has the right to receive from his physician information necessary to give informed consent prior to the start of any procedure and/or treatment.
The patient has the right to refuse treatment and to be informed of the medical consequences of his action.
The patient has the right to every consideration of his privacy concerning his own medical care program.
The patient has the right to expect that all communications and records pertaining to his care should be treated as confidential.
The patient has the right to expect within its capacity, a hospital must make reasonable response to the request of a patient for services.
The patient has the right to obtain information as to any relationship his hospital has to other health care and educational institutions insofar as his care is concerned.
The patient has the right to be advised if the hospital proposes to engage in or perform human experimentation affecting his care or treatment.
The patient has the right to expect reasonable continuity of care.
The patient has the right to examine and receive an explanation of his bill.
The patient has the right to know what hospital rules and regulations apply to his conduct as a patient.

Atlas of Human Skeletal Anatomy by Juraj Artner

2008-01-31T18:54:00.002-08:00

Here's an eBook of Atlas of Human Skeletal Anatomy by Juraj Artner.

Download link:
http://www.ziddu.com/download.php?uid=Zq2dl5eua7CcluKnZKqhkZSmYa2ZnZqm4

Essential Microbiology by Stuart Hogg

2008-01-31T18:54:00.001-08:00

Here's an eBook of Essential Microbiology by Stuart Hogg.

Download link:
http://www.ziddu.com/download.php?uid=YrGhmJiuZrCenOKnYaqhkZSmXq2Zm5eq1

COLOR ATLAS OF ULTRASOUND ANATOMY

2008-01-31T18:51:00.000-08:00

Here's an eBook entitled, COLOR ATLAS OF ULTRASOUND ANATOMY

Download link:
http://www.ziddu.com/download.php?uid=ZbGfmJmpZ66b4palY7KWlJWiZqualZs%3D3